Is a meaningful disinction possible?

For the discussion of math. Duh.

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Treatid
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Is a meaningful disinction possible?

Postby Treatid » Sun Jul 09, 2017 11:56 pm UTC

It is perfectly reasonable to think that many small differences can eventually become a distinction such that different rules now apply.

Can we quantify this in any way? Do the rules slowly change with the sum of differences? Or is there a sudden phase change at some point?

As far as I can tell "There is a difference so the rules have changed" doesn't say anything. There is no associated measure for what differences lead to what rule changes.

I think the way we answer this question will have a significant impact on how we view mathematics.

@ucim: I hope you repost your response here - I agree with you on a lot of what you are saying - but...

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gmalivuk
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Re: Is a meaningful disinction possible?

Postby gmalivuk » Mon Jul 10, 2017 12:17 am UTC

Nope.
Unless stated otherwise, I do not care whether a statement, by itself, constitutes a persuasive political argument. I care whether it's true.
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