liveboy21 wrote:Buying and selling to get both markets to have the same price will probably be the correct solution. You have two markets that have different prices and a trader that has the ability to access both markets. The trader would then choose to buy a good at the lower price and sell the good at the higher price simultaneously. This trading strategy is known as arbitrage.
Since the trader will sell in the more expensive market and buy in the cheaper market, the prices will eventually become the same. There is no difference between the markets and if a difference appears for whatever reason, the trader will take advantage of it and cause the price to equalize once more. This effect is known as the law of one price.
It's hard to say exactly how many trades will happen based on the little information about your ecomony model (eg. where do credits come from, where do goods come from, how fast do they grow, does trading have restraints, etc) but you can expect that there will be arbitrage trading.
This is only necessarily the case for goods which are resalable.
Assuming the trader can bring x amount of goods with him when he travels between the two systems, and that all the goods they had in the system before the trader arrived which got sold are replaced by the time he returned and defining the amount of goods in A as a and the amount of money in A as A we get that:
The price of goods in the cheap system (A) is (A/a)*(a+x)/(a-x) and in the expensive system is (B/b)*(b-x)/(b+x) and the trader's profit is x(B/b-A/a) after one trade.
If the goods aren't resalable, then the next time he trades, a'=a and A'=A+x*A/a and b'=b and B'=B-x*B/b.
Now, which direction he trades will depend on the price gap, but, assuming it's still in the same direction, the price of goods and the trader's profits will simply be the result for one trade with A' and B' substituted for A and B so price(A)=((A+x*A/a)/a)*(a+x)/(a-x)=(A/a^2)*(a+x)^2/(a-x).
It's clear where the trend goes so that, after n trades in the same direction, P(A)=(A/a^n)*(a+x)^n/(a-x).
If a trade causes the price difference to switch, the trader's next trade will be in the opposite direction and so will simply be to reverse his previous trade.
Of course, this assumes non-resalable goods, that the goods in the system each time the trader arrives doesn't change and that the trader always trades the same amount of stock and, most importantly, the price only changes after the trade has taken place. In this form of the problem, it is always in the trader's interest to miss equilibrium because then he can make another profit-making trade.
If the goods are resalable, I suspect that you'll end up with the same situation except that instead of the price on each planet oscillating around equality, the actual amount of money and goods will oscillate around equal.
It will still always (for almost all starting values) be possible for the trader to make a profit on a trade and so, in this set up (both the resalable and non-resalable versions), the trader will eventually end up with all of the money in the world.