Hello, I have recently encountered the sum ln(1)/1 - ln(2)/2 + ln(3)/3 - ln(4)/4 + ln(5)/5 - ln(6)/6 ..... = sum n=1 to infinity -(-1)^n*ln(n)/n
It is clear it converges, but does anyone know the answer and have a proof? Thank you!
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You are right. Here's one approach:Heptadecagon wrote:I believe this sum has a closed form with natural logarithms and the Euler-Mascheroni constant because of some integrals I've been fooling around with, but I'm not quite sure yet. Thank you for your help!
eta oin shrdlu wrote:Spoiler:
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