bebboe wrote:I have a real(ly weird) question. What about sentences like
(1) This book, Peter seems to like.
Is (1) considered grammatical? I was just wondering whether in English you could also topicalize objects that are embedded (since [to like this book] in 'Peter seems to like this book' might be - and usually is - considered a non-finite dependant clause) just as well as non-embedded objects as in
(1) is almost right.
1a) This book, Peter seems to like it.
1b) This book, Peter seems
to like it, but...
would be grammatical.
(2) This book, Peter likes. [which should be grammatical if I am not utterly mistaken]
The reason I ask is that I just realized that in German (which happens to be my native tongue which is why this so much puzzles me since I realized only today that this is not your usual topicalization) sentences like (1) [= Dieses Buch scheint der Peter zu mögen. / article present to force the object-reading for 'dieses Buch'] are considered grammatical. So, what about sentences like (1) or even
This sentence works, but is contrastive.
It means, "Peter doesn't like that book. (However,) This book, Peter likes" (I'd say it with the however, but understand it without)
Is that how you parse the German sentence?
(3) This book, Peter promised Mary to read. [in the sense of: Peter promised Mary to read this book.]
again, the German equivalent seems to me to be perfectly grammatical [Dieses Buch versprach Peter der Marie zu lesen].
So, what about (1) and (3)?
(3) is ungrammatical, due to the "Mary to read".
3a) This book, Peter promised Mary he would read her it.
3b) This book, Peter had promised Mary he'd read her it.
etc. would be grammatical.
I don't think it's grammatical without "it".