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EstLladon wrote:And I have a new paper that will be printed in the CSR 2008, LNCS 5010 proceedings. But I'm not sure if I can show it here. I can probably, but it is my first published thing, so I don't want to mess it up.
Some of us exist to find out what can and can't be done.
Others exist to hold the beer.
camipco wrote:Manda Riehl, you are such a babe.
Also, if anyone knows how to get Manda into a movie with Kevin Bacon, that would be super. Thanks.
Woxor wrote:I just realized that one of my profs last year had an Erdos number of 2. I had the opportunity to proofread a book he was writing (and be credited in the published version for as much), but I didn't do it! Curses! I don't know how close I'll get to a 3 again.
mastered wrote:I remember having heard of Erdos numbers somewhere, but... doesn't that mean you know someone who knew him, etc.? Or something to do with papers. He's still alive? Wow, I must get to work.
mastered wrote:He's still alive?
kira wrote:cmacis wrote:We have mathmos here, just not a lot past the first year of BSc.
Saw the title and knew it would make no sense to me.
Yeah, I've already got my math degree and I still didn't have to write anything but summaries of other people's papers.
njperrone wrote:Well, I discovered this and proved it throught the month of August 2009. It's final proof was made within the first two weeks of September. Please tell me your thoughts on this. Any and all criticism is welcome.
jaap wrote:njperrone wrote:Well, I discovered this and proved it throught the month of August 2009. It's final proof was made within the first two weeks of September. Please tell me your thoughts on this. Any and all criticism is welcome.
You do not have a proof. It breaks on functions such as:
f(x) = 1
f(x) = 1+sin(x)
f(x) = sin(pi x)
f(x) = sin(2pi x) / 2x
f(x) = {sin(x) for x<0; 1+sin(x) for x>=0}
f(x) = {1 for x=1/2 ; 0 elsewhere}
Think through the reasons for why the above functions make your proof fail. Also think about this: If A implies B, it does not necessarily follow that B implies A.
njperrone wrote:First, it does not break on f(x)=1 because d1/dx is 0 and no matter how many times you add 0 to 0 you always get 0.
njperrone wrote:you're last counterexample, f(x) = {1 for x=1/2 ; 0 elsewhere}, is non-differential over the real number line so it cannot be used with my formula;
njperrone wrote:the same is true with f(x) = {sin(x) for x<0; 1+sin(x) for x>=0}. d(1+sin(x))/dy=cos(x) whose integral is sin(x)+c which has the potential to be an odd function; my formula still holds up.
jaap wrote:
So wait - you're formula is not testing whether a function or odd or even, only whether it has the POTENTIAL to be odd or even? Where does it say that in your paper?
njperrone wrote:jaap wrote:
So wait - you're formula is not testing whether a function or odd or even, only whether it has the POTENTIAL to be odd or even? Where does it say that in your paper?
On the last page, bottom of page two continuing onto 3, it explains this. It does not use the word potential, but somewhat close analysis of that observation will definitely tell you the same thing. Just without the word potential.
jaap wrote:I have already given an example of a function that is neither even nor odd that has a zero sum:
f(x) = { 1-cos(2pi x) for 0<x<1; 0 elsewhere}
jaap wrote:A worse example, here is an odd function with a zero sum.
f(x) = { 1-cos(2pi x) for x>=0; cos(2pi x)-1 for x<0 }
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