The Milkman wrote:I think in Modern Hebrew(and this might be because it was essentially a constructed language) the infinitive is formed by putting "-ל"-"to" as a particle added to a noun - in front of the word's base. In traditional/Biblical Hebrew, there isn't anything like that. So I'm going to assume that that practice was derived from the "to ___" formation of the infinitive in English.
Hm, did the people who re-created Hebrew in the late 19th and early 20th century generally speak English? As far as I remember reading most of them had a German or Russian background.