Note that my questions here arise purely from ignorance. I do not, in any way, harbor opinions about the inferiority of either gender and I, without qualification or ambiguity, think that rape is wrong. I also certainly hold that taking advantage of a person too drunk to rationally consent to sex is morally wrong.
But I don't quite see why it should be illegal. People are responsible for agreeing to things and their actions when drunk, right? Drunk people sign contracts, etc. And when they screw up, we hold them responsible for that: it's why drunk drivers are punished. Why is it that, in the case of sex, we aren't allowed to treat consent as consent? Although I think that it's wrong for a person to take advantage of a drunk person, isn't his or her consent while drunk still his or her own prerogative? Should he or she not be responsible for the consequences of her actions while drunk or sober?
Again, sorry if these questions are offensively ignorant, I just don't know much about the ethics in this area. If the mods feel this thread is inappropriate or too sexist or somethhing, I understand.
EDIT: note that I am not asking anything along the lines of 'wasn't she asking for it?' By definition, a woman cannot ask for rape. If she didn't explicitly consent, her other supposed signals don't matter, I get that.

